NEET 2026 (question paper code 14) had 180 questions in NEET720's bank: Physics 45, Chemistry 45, Botany 45 and Zoology 45. The 12 questions below are a fixed free sample with NEET720's explanations; the complete paper is in the app, where it can be sat as a timed mock with the real marking scheme.
Physics — NEET 2026 sample questions
NEET 2026 · Question 1
A ball is thrown vertically upward and later falls back down. Five candidate velocity-time plots A-E are shown in the original Code-14 paper. Plot C is a single straight line that starts at a positive velocity, has constant negative slope, crosses v = 0 at the highest point, and then continues into negative velocity. Which of the following is correct?
- A.B only
- B.A and E only
- C.D only
- D.C only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. C only
With upward taken as positive, v = u - gt, so the v-t graph is one straight line of constant slope -g that crosses from positive to negative velocity.
After release, the only acceleration of the ball is gravity, which is constant and downward. Taking upward as positive gives a = -g and therefore v(t) = u - gt. A linear equation in t must produce a straight v-t line with y-intercept u and constant negative slope -g. The velocity becomes zero only at the highest point and then becomes negative during the fall, so the graph does not turn around or become curved. Plot C has exactly this behaviour, hence option 4 is correct.
NEET 2026 · Question 2
For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck's constant as 6.6 x 10^-34 Js)
- A.50 nm
- B.100 nm
- C.150 nm
- D.200 nm
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. 200 nm
Photoemission needs photon energy E = 1240/lambda(nm) eV to reach or exceed the work function.
Photoelectric emission happens only when a photon's energy meets or exceeds the metal's work function of 6.6 eV. Using the handy relation E(eV) = 1240/wavelength(nm), a 50 nm photon carries about 24.8 eV, 100 nm gives about 12.4 eV, and 150 nm gives about 8.3 eV, all comfortably above 6.6 eV so emission occurs. At 200 nm the energy works out to about 6.2 eV, which falls short of the 6.6 eV threshold, so no electrons are ejected. Since photon energy falls as wavelength grows, 200 nm is the longest (and only) wavelength among the choices that fails to trigger the effect.
NEET 2026 · Question 3
The power of a crane, which lifts a mass of 1000 kg to a height of 20 m in 10 s is: (g = 9.8 m/s^2)
- A.39.2 kW
- B.39.2 W
- C.19.6 kW
- D.19.6 W
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C. 19.6 kW
Average power equals work done against gravity divided by time, with work = mgh.
Lifting a mass at constant speed requires doing work against gravity equal to mgh. Plugging in m = 1000 kg, g = 9.8 m/s^2 and h = 20 m gives work of 196,000 J. Dividing this work by the 10 s taken gives a power of 19,600 W. Converting to kilowatts by dividing by 1000 gives 19.6 kW as the crane's power output.
Chemistry — NEET 2026 sample questions
NEET 2026 · Question 46
The correct statement with regard to the secondary structure of DNA/RNA is:
- A.DNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases.
- B.DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases.
- C.RNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains uracil as one of the four bases.
- D.RNA possesses a single strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. DNA possesses a double strand helix structure and contains thymine as one of the four bases.
DNA is a double-stranded helix built from A, G, C and T, while RNA is single-stranded and uses U instead of T.
DNA is made of two antiparallel polynucleotide chains wound into a double helix and held together by hydrogen bonding between paired bases, giving it four bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine. RNA, by contrast, is normally found as a single polynucleotide chain that can fold back on itself but does not form a long regular duplex, and it carries uracil in place of thymine. Checking each choice against these two facts eliminates any option pairing DNA with uracil or a single strand, and any option pairing RNA with thymine or a double helix. Only the statement describing a double-stranded DNA containing thymine survives this check, so that is the correct description.
NEET 2026 · Question 47
Match List-I with List-II. List-I contains quantum numbers and List-II contains orbitals.
- A.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- B.A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
- C.A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
- D.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
The orbital label is fixed by writing n first and converting l to its letter (s,p,d,f for l = 0,1,2,3).
Each orbital name is obtained by writing the principal quantum number n followed by the subshell letter that corresponds to the azimuthal quantum number l, using the sequence s, p, d, f for l = 0, 1, 2, 3. A set with n = 2, l = 1 gives 2p; n = 4, l = 0 gives 4s; n = 5, l = 3 gives 5f; and n = 3, l = 2 gives 3d. Working through each (n, l) pair in List-I this way and matching it to its orbital label in List-II produces the assignment A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
NEET 2026 · Question 48
During Lassaigne's test, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from:
- A.Covalent form to ionic form
- B.Covalent form to covalent form
- C.Ionic form to ionic form
- D.Ionic form to covalent form
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Covalent form to ionic form
Fusing the compound with sodium breaks its covalent bonds and produces water-soluble ionic sodium salts.
Elements such as nitrogen, sulphur and halogens are held in organic molecules by covalent bonds, which do not ionize readily in water, so they cannot be detected directly. In Lassaigne's test the compound is strongly heated with metallic sodium, and this fusion breaks the covalent linkages, converting nitrogen into sodium cyanide, sulphur into sodium sulphide, and halogens into sodium halides. When the fused mass is extracted with water, these species exist as free ions such as cyanide, sulphide and halide, which can then be tested with characteristic reagents. The overall transformation is therefore from covalently bonded elements in the starting compound to ionic species in the sodium extract, matching the covalent-to-ionic description.
Botany — NEET 2026 sample questions
NEET 2026 · Question 93
Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.
- A.B, C and D only
- B.A, B and D only
- C.A, B and E only
- D.C, D and E only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A, B and D only
Biodiversity loss is usually described through habitat destruction, over-harvesting, invasive species, and co-extinction, and each statement must be checked against these categories.
Clearing Amazonian forest for soy farming directly destroys the natural habitat of countless species, which is a straightforward case of habitat loss, making statement A correct. Steller's sea cow and the passenger pigeon are textbook examples of species hunted to extinction by humans, so over-exploitation explains statement B. The Nile perch is a predatory fish that, once introduced to Lake Victoria, drove many native cichlid species toward extinction rather than helping them thrive, so statement C is false. Water hyacinth spreads aggressively outside its native range and chokes water bodies, so it is correctly labeled invasive in statement D. Statement E is wrong because losing a species typically triggers a ripple effect, since dependent parasites, pollinators, or symbiotic partners tied to it can also decline or disappear, a phenomenon called co-extinction. The correct statements are therefore A, B and D.
NEET 2026 · Question 94
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit in DNA? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions: promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.
- A.A, C, D and E only
- B.A, B, C, D and E
- C.A, B, C and D only
- D.B, C, D and E only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A, B, C, D and E
A transcription unit is fully described by its promoter, coding region, and terminator, and every listed detail about their positions and roles is accurate.
A transcription unit is organized into three functional parts: a promoter that starts the process, the structural gene that gets copied into RNA, and a terminator that ends it, which supports statement A. The promoter sits upstream, at the 5' side of the gene as referenced on the coding strand, and it is precisely where RNA polymerase attaches to begin transcription, covering statements B and C. Because the promoter's position and orientation fix the reading direction, it effectively determines which of the two DNA strands serves as template and which serves as the coding strand, supporting statement D. The terminator lies downstream, near the 3' end relative to the coding strand, and its role is to signal transcription's stop point, matching statement E. Since all five statements hold up, the answer includes all of them.
NEET 2026 · Question 95
Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system.
- A.A, B, C and E only
- B.B, C, D and E only
- C.A, B, C and D only
- D.A, B, D and E only
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. A, B, C and E only
Honeybee sex depends on ploidy: fertilized diploid eggs become female and unfertilized haploid eggs become male, which also decides how sperm is made.
In honeybees, fertilization determines chromosome number and sex: a fertilized egg carries a full diploid set and develops into a female, whether queen or worker, matching statement A. An egg that is never fertilized still develops through parthenogenesis and becomes a male drone, supporting statement B. Because the male arises from an unfertilized egg, it carries only half the chromosome number of a female, confirming statement C. This whole arrangement, where sex is set by whether an egg is fertilized or not, is called the haplodiploid system, matching statement E. Statement D is false, however, because a drone is already haploid, so it cannot undergo a reduction division like meiosis to make sperm; instead it produces sperm through mitosis, keeping the same chromosome number. So statements A, B, C, and E are true while D is not.
Zoology — NEET 2026 sample questions
NEET 2026 · Question 137
The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
- A.Aptenodytes
- B.Neophron
- C.Psittacula
- D.Struthio
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Aptenodytes
This asks for the genus of penguins, birds whose wings evolved into swimming flippers.
The description of a flightless bird whose forelimbs form paddle-like swimming structures points directly to penguins. Aptenodytes is the genus containing the large penguins, such as the emperor penguin, whose wings have become rigid flippers for propulsion underwater rather than organs of flight. Neophron refers to the Egyptian vulture, a fully flighted scavenging raptor, so it does not fit. Psittacula names a group of parakeets that fly normally using typical wings. Struthio, the ostrich, is flightless but its adaptation for speed lies in its powerful running legs, not paddle-shaped forelimbs, so only Aptenodytes matches every part of the description.
NEET 2026 · Question 139
A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales are absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?
- A.Petromyzon sp.
- B.Branchiostoma sp.
- C.Scoliodon sp.
- D.Exocoetus sp.
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A. Petromyzon sp.
A circular sucking mouth combined with a cartilaginous, finless, scaleless body identifies a jawless cyclostome.
A cartilaginous skeleton rules out bony fishes, and the circular sucking mouth used to attach to a host is the hallmark of jawless ectoparasites rather than true jawed fishes. The absence of paired fins and scales together with multiple gill slit pairs further narrows this to the cyclostomes. Petromyzon, the lamprey, fits every point: it has a cartilaginous skeleton, lacks jaws, scales, and paired fins, and is well known for attaching to host fish with a sucking oral disc. Branchiostoma is a filter-feeding cephalochordate with no sucking mouth, Scoliodon is a jawed cartilaginous shark with fins and scales, and Exocoetus is a bony, scaled flying fish, so none of these match as well as Petromyzon.
NEET 2026 · Question 141
Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are:
- A.Mitochondria
- B.Lysosomes
- C.Centrosomes
- D.Ribosomes
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D. Ribosomes
Only ribosomes lack a membrane and occur in every type of living cell.
Mitochondria are enclosed by a double membrane and exist only in eukaryotic cells, so they fail both criteria. Lysosomes are single-membrane vesicles restricted to eukaryotic, mainly animal, cells, so they also fail. Centrosomes lack a membrane but are limited to eukaryotic animal cells and play no role in prokaryotes. Ribosomes, by contrast, are built purely from RNA and protein without any surrounding membrane, and because every cell needs to synthesize proteins to survive, ribosomes occur universally in prokaryotes and eukaryotes alike, making them the correct answer.
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Questions about NEET 2026
How many questions were there in NEET 2026?+
The NEET 2026 paper in NEET720's bank (code 14) has 180 questions: Physics 45, Chemistry 45, Botany 45 and Zoology 45.
Where can I solve the full NEET 2026 paper?+
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Are these the official NEET 2026 questions?+
The questions and options reproduce the official NTA paper as published. Every explanation is NEET720's own; none is copied from any publisher or coaching institute. Questions that NTA declared bonus or withdrew are not shown as practice items.
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Questions and options reproduce the official NTA NEET 2026 paper. Explanations are written by NEET720. NEET720 is not affiliated with the National Testing Agency.